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Question for you all:

Is it possible to have schizophrenia with only positive symptoms and also have a very high level of functioning? Does one necessarily have to have negative symptoms for a scz dx? Any articles or feedback would be greatly appreciated.

love from blackbird who has had a fight with her pdoc and run away from psych ward to write this!

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According to the DSM-IV you need to have negative symptoms.  You could have a similiar dx.

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Actually, there is. It's called HOPA-linked schizophrenia.

People with HOPA-linked schizophrenia may have hallucinations. However, they do not have the "negative" symptoms found with most other forms of schizophrenia, such as compromised thinking, decreased attention and loss of emotion.

"We knew the gene causes a specific form of schizophrenia, but we didn't know that the type was associated with a good prognosis and marked by absence of negative symptoms," Philibert said. "Most individuals with this positive symptom schizophrenia are able to function in society and hold down jobs."

Not everyone who has the HOPA12pb polymorphism is schizophrenic; most don't.

The article that that's from talks about how it's associated with improved survival or something, and then they don't bother elaborating. Well, there's a reason. This polymorphism is seen in roughly 1 out of every 50 people of European extraction. That is a lot of people. If it didn't do something like that, it wouldn't be so common.

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