Wooster Posted November 19, 2007 Share Posted November 19, 2007 I'm going up on slurroquel, ladies and germs. Titrating up to 200 mg in the next few days if its tolerable. The PI sheet for slurroquel says: The mean oral clearance of lorazepam (2 mg, single dose) was reduced by 20% in the presence of quetiapine administered as 250 mg tid dosing. Can someone please explain this to me in plain English? Does this mean the lorazepam sticks around 20% longer than it did before? Peace, Wooster (still hangin' in there) Edited to fix typos Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.