Jump to content
CrazyBoards.org

Bipolar with psychosis / Schizoaffective


Recommended Posts

I hope this does not seem like a goofy question......but here goes.....

My pdoc with whome I've been working for a relatively short while has used the term "schizoaffective" to describe my symptoms. Ok, fair enough.

Over a year and a half ago, I was diagnosed Bipolar I. Recently, in a brief stay at a sub-acute facility, I had some visits with my former pdoc.

As I described some of the symptoms and the new diagnosis of schizoaffective, he said he would lean more toward " bi-polar with psychosis".

Of course my new pdoc seems to be sticking by the schizoaffective moniker.

My question is, is this a matter of splitting hairs and semantics? As I have looked up both of these labels, they seem really interchangeable in many ways

as schizoaffective is apparently really not true schizophrenia.

Any thoughts or experience with these labels?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest Vapourware

The confusion surrounding schizoaffective is one of the reasons why the label was considered for removal from the DSM V. Not sure if that's still on the agenda, I haven't been following.

Anyways - generally speaking, whether you are bipolar with psychotic features or schizoaffective depends on which aspect is stronger for you. If the psychosis seems to impact and linger around more than the mood features [i.e. you have psychosis outside of mood symptoms], then it's more likely to be schizoaffective. If the psychosis occurs within mood episodes, then it's more likely to be bipolar with psychotic features. Teasing those differences out can be a challenge.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

My pdoc changed my dx from Bipolar w/ psychotic features to Schizoaffective because I was having psychotic symptoms for several weeks (months?) outside of a mood episode. As bpladybug mentioned, the treatment is the same in either case.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

The confusion surrounding schizoaffective is one of the reasons why the label was considered for removal from the DSM V. Not sure if that's still on the agenda, I haven't been following.

Currently, the DSM-5 isn't looking at removing the diagnosis entirely, but they are trying to make it more reliable. For instance, the revised criteria currently specify that psychosis has to be observed independent of a mood episode as defined elsewhere in the manual (rather than undefined mood "symptoms", which is what the DSM-IV-TR says).

To get back to the OP's question, it really is splitting hairs. It's not something I would worry about so much.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Archived

This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.

×
×
  • Create New...