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I just looked at the DSM V chriteria for schizoaffective disorder. All I am left with is...WTF. 

 

It says that mood symptoms have to be present for most of the disorder. So, if there are supposed to be mood symptoms present for most of the disorder, then why the hell is this still in the schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders group? Schizoaffective disorder might as well just be a mood disorder now. Mood episodes are not present most of the time for me.....

 

This is all very silly and poorly thought out in my opinion. 

 

Maybe I am just completely out of it. Maybe someone can clarify this for me?

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I think they need to make the criteria reflect that everyone is going to present differently with schizoaffective. 

 

OP, you don't present with as much mood symptoms, but my illness is actually split about 60% mood problems, 40% psychosis. I have a very "typical" presentation according to my pdoc (I have the same presentation as they describe in the DSM). So, everyone is different. I wish the criteria would reflect that. 

 

ETA: I also have periods of wellness, like typical bipolar presentation. Not mood/psychotic symptoms all the time. 

 

That's part of the controversy surrounding the schizoaffective Dx though, eh? It's not considered a legitimate diagnosis by some pdocs for this exact reason. 

Edited by Parapluie
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I think a huge problem is that from the beginning it has been sort of a "controversial" diagnosis. And as said, some doctors don't see it as legitimate at all.

 

A huge issue that I see people argue about is "is it a separate disorder?".

 

On what @Parapluie has said it might need to be suggested that all people with Schizoaffective Disorder are different. However that is just it. If all people with SZA are different in their styles, then is it a separate disorder at all? How are exactly SZA BP types different from Bipolar w/ Psychosis? And continuing that example, would it be better adding another or different Bipolar type rather than a SZA diagnosis? Maybe an "add on" term like for a schizophrenic-type psychosis or personality much like an "add on" term for different types of cycling. Same idea for schizophrenia with depression.

 

Just a thought :nerdy:

Edited by Gibson
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The DSM 5 is receiving a lot of criticism from psychiatrists. I believe there is already a published revision out. I subscribe to a psychiatrists ezine (I hesitate to call it a journal).

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How are exactly SZA BP types different from Bipolar w/ Psychosis?

 

 

This is something I've wondered about a lot myself (as someone who has BP1 with psychotic features).

 

PS Just in case you're interested, it's actually been titled DSM-5 and not DSM-V - they've dropped the Roman numerals.

Edited by miab
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How are exactly SZA BP types different from Bipolar w/ Psychosis?

 

 

This is something I've wondered about a lot myself (as someone who has BP1 with psychotic features).

 

PS Just in case you're interested, it's actually been titled DSM-5 and not DSM-V - they've dropped the Roman numerals.

 

The difference was, I haven't seen the new description yet, that with sza you have periods of psychosis without mood symptoms.

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Regarding Schizoaffective disorder (with a Bipolar subtype), I always wonder whether I should post in the Bipolar or Psychotic forums. The new definition looks like it is a new type pof Bipolar Disorder With Prolonged Psychotic Features, or Schizophrenia with prolonged depression. Personally, I am very depressed for half a year, with Major Depression at its peak. Then, during the other half of the year,  I experience more psychotic symptoms, a 'normal' period, then hypomania, then mania (lithium helps a lot with full mania), which slows down back to depression. So this new diagnostic criteria makes where to post somewhat confusing.

 

Lastly, I love roman numerals.

That is all.

 

teluia

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I own a copy of the DSM 5 mainly because I was curious about what the new criteria would be for Schizoaffective. I would say psychosis is more of a problem for me than mood, like 80% psychosis and 20% mood problems for me. I think based on the new criteria my diagnosis should probably change to schizophrenia but I doubt it will. I'm fine with my dx, I think it fits me. I have had serious major depression, just not nearly as often as I get the psychosis. I think there is a tendency to label people with high functioning schizophrenia as schizoaffective because schizoaffective is thought to have a better prognosis and less severe psychosis.

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Most of my problems are psychosis. I get some depression, occasionally, and im questioning whether or not i ever had a hypomanic episode ever in my life (my mood swings seem more consistent with BPD than bipolar, and they started about the same time my BPD started too. Plus i dont really get the "sleep less" thing, i used to reverse day and night so i'd be up until like 3am, but i'd sleep in until midday, that doesnt sound like mania to me, anyway...). Right now im wondering if i even am schizoaffective, and this makes me wonder if they change the criteria that much, i wont even classify as schizoaffective any more.

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My pdoc says that I have had psychosis for 2 years now, non-stop. Psychosis is my main problem. I have it 100% of the time. Then I have major mood episodes about 45% of the time. 

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I have mood symptoms about 40% of the time, meaning its not most of the total duration of the illness. Is this what will differentiate between schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder? I have the so called psychosis 60% of the time. Most of my mood symptoms are depression. Rarely mania. The last manic episode which only lasted a week or so was when I was in the hospital last time in April. 

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