Rabbit37 Posted January 31, 2006 Share Posted January 31, 2006 This is something I've been wondering about. I came into new tdoc's office with the diagnosis of BPII. During the second appt, he made a comment that he wasn't sure if he agreed or disagreed with the bipolar spectrum. At the time, I thought he meant he wasn't quite sure about bipolarism. He did have the results of the MMPI2, although we didn't discuss much of it. At the latest appt (my 3rd), at the very end we were discussing my first hospitalization, and I mentioned the months of heavy bizarre dreams I had... many of which I had *before* meds were introduced. He whipped open my file and started scribbling like mad. And in the test, I did say that I did have a vision a few years ago, something I believe strongly about. Wasn't a dream, I know that. Can't explain further, really. I guess my question is, in your experience, where is the line between dreams, visions and hallucinations? I'm now on Risperdal, which I had thought was for the OCD and general fogginess of thought, and maybe being in a mixed state. He doesn't like labels, so he really does not go into that. But now, a week later, I wondered if it's also for psychosis? Yes, it's really taken me a week to put 2+2 together. And it's worked wonders, I feel so much better and calmer. Curiosity, I suppose. One dx or another doesn't make a difference, only that we can get the right cocktail, correct? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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